CPT Medical Coding Assigment

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS -MAKE SURE THEY ARE ALL CORRECT

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1.   Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule? 

    

   A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files.

   B. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient admission.

   C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to third parties.

   D. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians.

2.   A tethered health record allows patients to 

    

   A. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.

   B. use a secure portal to access their own records.

   C. restructure insurance copayments.

   D. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses.

3.   A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. S72.003A

   B. S72.001A

   C. S49.006A

   D. S72.009A

4.   Which one of the following structures is part of the male secondary genitalia? 

    

   A. Gonads

   B. Urethra

   C. Testes

   D. Vulva

5.   What is the full code description for 25515? 

    

   A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of triangular fibrocartilage complex

   B. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed

   C. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation

   D. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation

6.   Another name for XXY syndrome is 

    

   A. Turner’s syndrome.

   B. Huntington’s chorea.

   C. Cooley’s anemia.

   D. Klinefelter syndrome.

7.   The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called the 

    

   A. cochlea.

   B. stapes.

   C. malleus.

   D. incus.

 

8.   Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system. 

    

   A. circulatory

   B. digestive

   C. endocrine

   D. sensory

9.   Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? 

    

   A. It’s located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart.

   B. It’s found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.

   C. It’s susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie’s disease.

   D. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body.

10.   A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How is this coded? 

    

   A. 55520

   B. 52630

   C. 51702

   D. 52601

11.   What is the CPT code for simple drainage of a finger abscess? 

    

   A. 26010

   B. 26020

   C. 26034

   D. 26011

12.   Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes 

    

   A. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.

   B. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.

   C. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.

   D. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.

13.   What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial nephritis? 

    

   A. Z02.6

   B. B96.2

   C. L50.0

   D. N10

14.   An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient’s artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an 

    

   A. aneurysm.

   B. cyst.

   C. mesenteric venous thrombosis.

   D. benign tumor.

15.   What is Medicare Part D? 

    

   A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries

   B. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents

   C. Add-on coverage for dental procedures

   D. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies approved by Medicare

16.   The suffix –stasis means 

    

   A. flow.

   B. stopping and controlling.

   C. breakdown.

   D. kinetic.

17.   The outcome of delivery code should be 

    

   A. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.

   B. assigned to the newborn record only.

   C. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.

   D. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs.

18.   A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99292, 99292, 99293

   B. 99291, 99291

   C. 99291, 99292

   D. 99292, 99293

19.   The root word OBSTETR/O means 

    

   A. cesarean.

   B. pregnancy.

   C. birth.

   D. midwife.

20.   Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in 

    

   A. Excel.

   B. Lotus 1-2-3.

   C. PowerPoint.

   D. Word.

21.   A patient undergoes an appendectomy and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier should be assigned to the CPT code? 

    

   A. -51

   B. -AA

   C. -76

   D. -78

22.   The concept of meaningful use pertains to 

    

   A. categorization of patient information.

   B. medical office protocol and document organization.

   C. resource management in the inpatient setting.

   D. electronic health record implementation.

23.   The study of disease is called 

    

   A. pathology.

   B. urology.

   C. physiology.

   D. neurology.

24.   Modifier -23 indicates that 

    

   A. a procedure was performed bilaterally.

   B. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia.

   C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure.

   D. two surgeons performed a procedure.

25.   Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it may 

    

   A. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being diagnosed with the condition.

   B. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical records.

   C. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.

   D. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory surgery centers.

26.   Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is called 

    

   A. protection.

   B. secured loss.

   C. copayment.

   D. indemnity.

27.   Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which are often 

    

   A. used primarily by chiropractors.

   B. used to describe surgical incisions.

   C. referenced horizontally.

   D. paired in opposites.

28.   The code for an ESWL would be found in the 

    

   A. Digestive System of CPT.

   B. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT.

   C. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS.

   D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.

29.   What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy? 

    

   A. 33015

   B. 33050

   C. 33026

   D. 33210

30.   HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed on the 

    

   A. upper left eyelid.

   B. upper right eyelid.

   C. lower left eyelid.

   D. lower right eyelid.

31.   Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system. 

    

   A. UCR

   B. capitation

   C. retrospective payment

   D. prospective payment

32.   What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law? 

    

   A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s discretion.

   B. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding arbitration.

   C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law.

   D. State laws overrule federal law.

33.   The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-paid basis is called 

    

   A. pre-paid care.

   B. managed care.

   C. fee-for-service.

   D. capitation.

34.   The suffix -sis means 

    

   A. process.

   B. drooping.

   C. inflammation.

   D. condition.

35.   A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99215, M19.011, R13.10

   B. 99203, J06.9, R59.0

   C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229

   D. 99202, D63.1, J45.909

36.   A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned? 

    

   A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4

   B. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4

   C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2

   D. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5

37.   A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire pregnancy, from beginning to end, is providing 

    

   A. comprehensive prenatal management.

   B. routine global obstetric care.

   C. puerperal obstetric care.

   D. antenatal global supervision.

38.   A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called 

    

   A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade.

   B. pancreatonia.

   C. pancreatolysis.

   D. pancreatitis.

39.   The covering on the brain and spinal cord in the dorsal cavity is called the 

    

   A. sheath.

   B. peritoneum.

   C. ganglia.

   D. meninges.

40.   The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as 

    

   A. health care administrators.

   B. protected personnel.

   C. provisional health care data collectors.

   D. covered entities.

41.   The retention period is the amount of time that 

    

   A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets.

   B. medications must be kept in the medical office.

   C. records must be kept.

   D. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation.

42.   A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for 

    

   A. invasion of privacy.

   B. undue harm and fraud.

   C. malice.

   D. malfeasance.

43.   Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of 

    

   A. endoplasmic reticulum.

   B. endocrine gland cells.

   C. extracellular matrix.

   D. columnar epithelial cells.

44.   A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded? 

    

   A. 38220

   B. 36575

   C. 35092

   D. 37328

45.   The vitreous humor can be found in the 

    

   A. eye.

   B. nose.

   C. tongue.

   D. ear.

46.   The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called 

    

   A. microbiology.

   B. histopathology.

   C. immunology.

   D. cytopathology.

47.   Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is called 

    

   A. selective catheter placement.

   B. brachiocephalic manipulation.

   C. third order placement.

   D. nonselective catheter placement.

48.   A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. L74.2

   B. L70.0

   C. L72.3

   D. L73.1

49.   Members of the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired members and their families qualify for 

    

   A. OIG Recovery.

   B. Medicaid.

   C. Medicare.

   D. TRICARE.

50.   A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with memory disturbance after being accidentally exposed to lead paint. What ICD-10-CM codes should be assigned? 

    

   A. T42.4X1A, R40.0

   B. T23.009A, R23.8

   C. T56.0X1A, R41.3

   D. T57.0X1A, R10.9

51.   Health care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may 

    

   A. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services.

   B. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General.

   C. be blacklisted according to geographic location.

   D. face financial penalties or, in some cases, imprisonment.

52.   A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis? 

    

   A. The anesthesia administration

   B. The allergy code

   C. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed

   D. The observation code

53.   The root word ENTER/O means 

    

   A. secretion.

   B. intestine.

   C. stomach.

   D. tooth.

54.   When coding burns, coders should 

    

   A. assign separate codes for each burn site.

   B. assign the code for chronic burns.

   C. classify all burns as acute burns.

   D. assign the code for third-degree burns.

55.   Which of the following forms is used to bill outpatient charges? 

    

   A. CMS-1500 or UCF-1500.

   B. AMA-14 or UCF-1250

   C. HCFA-1400 or CMS-1540

   D. HCFA-1350 or CMS-650

56.   A significant, separately identifiable E/M service performed by the same physician in conjunction with another service performed on the same day would be reported using what modifier? 

    

   A. -TC

   B. -47

   C. -90

   D. -25

57.   Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient? 

    

   A. P5

   B. P1

   C. P4

   D. P3

58.   Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called the 

    

   A. minimum necessary standard.

   B. information provision standard.

   C. privacy management statute.

   D. health information guardianship guideline.

59.   Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range? 

    

   A. 57000–57426

   B. 57000–57010

   C. 57150–57180

   D. 56800–56810

60.   A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example of 

    

   A. speculation.

   B. hearsay.

   C. a direct quote.

   D. cross-examination.

61.   A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger while administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must happen? 

    

   A. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be exposed to the same occupational hazard.

   B. The employee should contact the proper authorities.

   C. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse’s medical record for the remainder of her employment plus an additional 30 years.

   D. The guidelines for OSHA should be included in the employment file.

62.   Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is 

    

   A. healthcare vendors.

   B. insurance administrators.

   C. covered entities.

   D. business associates.

63.   A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned? 

    

   A. A4751

   B. A4918 × 2

   C. A4751 × 2

   D. A4918

 

64.   The anatomical location of the calyx is the 

    

   A. arm.

   B. kidney.

   C. spine.

   D. brain.

65.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 62270, G74.3

   B. 62270, G44.1

   C. 62141, G46.8

   D. 62272, G46.9

66.   A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned? 

    

   A. B4278

   B. B4125

   C. B4072

   D. B4034

67.   To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities? 

    

   A. ICD-7 provisional safeguards

   B. Immunization and injection safeguards

   C. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards

   D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards

68.   A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned? 

    

   A. E0976

   B. E0562

   C. E4752

   D. E0607

69.   Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows 

    

   A. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess.

   B. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff.

   C. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions.

   D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.

70.   A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under 

    

   A. Medicare Part B.

   B. Medicare Part A.

   C. Medicare Part D.

   D. Medicare Part C.

71.   Another term for disease evolution is 

    

   A. remission.

   B. pathogenesis.

   C. morphology.

   D. exacerbation.

72.   In relation to HIPAA regulations regarding the manner in which information can be disclosed, which of the following statements is true? 

    

   A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when the patient is unable to testify in a court proceeding.

   B. Protected health information may never be disclosed.

   C. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or administrative proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or administrative tribunal.

   D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a deposition.

73.   The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of 

    

   A. ambulatory payment surgery centers.

   B. prospective payment organizations.

   C. retrospective payment organizations.

   D. health maintenance organizations.

74.   Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer? 

    

   A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

   B. Meniscectomy

   C. Vasoconstriction

   D. Arthroscopy

75.   What diagnosis code would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy? 

    

   A. E11.21

   B. E11.01

   C. E11.22

   D. E11.9

76.   Another name for Medicare Advantage is 

    

   A. Medicare Part A.

   B. Medicare Part C.

   C. Medicare Part B.

   D. Medicare Part D.

77.   The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT? 

    

   A. 33200–33205

   B. 33437–33537

   C. 33202–33273

   D. 33533–33799

78.   A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919

   B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909

   C. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929

   D. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909

79.   What is considered to be protected health information (PHI)? 

    

   A. Any health information that can identify the individual to whom it refers

   B. Records pertaining to ancestry

   C. Statistical data compiled for research purposes only

   D. Census data

 

80.   In what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found? 

    

   A. 88515–88598

   B. 88300–88309

   C. 88400–80499

   D. 88000–80299

 

81.   The federal law that requires a patient’s written consent prior to disclosure of certain medical information by government agencies is called the 

    

   A. Health Care Amendment of 1976.

   B. Privacy Act of 1974.

   C. Health Information Law of 2002.

   D. Medical Consent Act of 1965.

82.   Data stored in a health care facility must 

    

   A. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.

   B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures.

   C. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage.

   D. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely.

83.   Under HIPAA, health care facilities must 

    

   A. maintain a clean, safe working environment.

   B. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.

   C. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a three-month timeframe.

   D. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for mandatory services.

84.   What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis? 

    

   A. 57135

   B. 57859

   C. 57600

   D. 57020

85.   A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is most likely a 

    

   A. tranquilizer.

   B. vasoconstrictor.

   C. cardiotonic.

   D. cardiogenic.

86.   If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can 

    

   A. complete employee paperwork.

   B. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.

   C. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records.

   D. also fulfill requests for prescription data.

87.   According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage? 

    

   A. $34.5741

   B. $32.4726

   C. $28.8457

   D. $36.0666

88.   According to HIPAA, a patient’s information may be released for 

    

   A. determining premiums based on a patient’s past medical history.

   B. paternity testing.

   C. research.

   D. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.

89.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. A07.21

   B. A02.21

   C. A05.26

   D. A23.24

90.   Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis? 

    

   A. Metatarsal

   B. Tibia

   C. Septum

   D. Diaphragm

91.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 76775-TC, N15

   B. 71010-26, B12

   C. 76775-26, N10

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CPT Medical Coding Assigment

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS -MAKE SURE THEY ARE ALL CORRECT

SEND BACK TO ME WITHIN 48 HOURS

1.   Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule? 

    

   A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files.

   B. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient admission.

   C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to third parties.

   D. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians.

2.   A tethered health record allows patients to 

    

   A. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.

   B. use a secure portal to access their own records.

   C. restructure insurance copayments.

   D. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses.

3.   A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. S72.003A

   B. S72.001A

   C. S49.006A

   D. S72.009A

4.   Which one of the following structures is part of the male secondary genitalia? 

    

   A. Gonads

   B. Urethra

   C. Testes

   D. Vulva

5.   What is the full code description for 25515? 

    

   A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of triangular fibrocartilage complex

   B. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed

   C. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation

   D. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation

6.   Another name for XXY syndrome is 

    

   A. Turner’s syndrome.

   B. Huntington’s chorea.

   C. Cooley’s anemia.

   D. Klinefelter syndrome.

7.   The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called the 

    

   A. cochlea.

   B. stapes.

   C. malleus.

   D. incus.

 

8.   Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system. 

    

   A. circulatory

   B. digestive

   C. endocrine

   D. sensory

9.   Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? 

    

   A. It’s located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart.

   B. It’s found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.

   C. It’s susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie’s disease.

   D. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body.

10.   A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How is this coded? 

    

   A. 55520

   B. 52630

   C. 51702

   D. 52601

11.   What is the CPT code for simple drainage of a finger abscess? 

    

   A. 26010

   B. 26020

   C. 26034

   D. 26011

12.   Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes 

    

   A. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.

   B. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.

   C. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.

   D. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.

13.   What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial nephritis? 

    

   A. Z02.6

   B. B96.2

   C. L50.0

   D. N10

14.   An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient’s artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an 

    

   A. aneurysm.

   B. cyst.

   C. mesenteric venous thrombosis.

   D. benign tumor.

15.   What is Medicare Part D? 

    

   A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries

   B. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents

   C. Add-on coverage for dental procedures

   D. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies approved by Medicare

16.   The suffix –stasis means 

    

   A. flow.

   B. stopping and controlling.

   C. breakdown.

   D. kinetic.

17.   The outcome of delivery code should be 

    

   A. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.

   B. assigned to the newborn record only.

   C. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.

   D. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs.

18.   A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99292, 99292, 99293

   B. 99291, 99291

   C. 99291, 99292

   D. 99292, 99293

19.   The root word OBSTETR/O means 

    

   A. cesarean.

   B. pregnancy.

   C. birth.

   D. midwife.

20.   Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in 

    

   A. Excel.

   B. Lotus 1-2-3.

   C. PowerPoint.

   D. Word.

21.   A patient undergoes an appendectomy and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier should be assigned to the CPT code? 

    

   A. -51

   B. -AA

   C. -76

   D. -78

22.   The concept of meaningful use pertains to 

    

   A. categorization of patient information.

   B. medical office protocol and document organization.

   C. resource management in the inpatient setting.

   D. electronic health record implementation.

23.   The study of disease is called 

    

   A. pathology.

   B. urology.

   C. physiology.

   D. neurology.

24.   Modifier -23 indicates that 

    

   A. a procedure was performed bilaterally.

   B. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia.

   C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure.

   D. two surgeons performed a procedure.

25.   Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it may 

    

   A. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being diagnosed with the condition.

   B. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical records.

   C. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.

   D. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory surgery centers.

26.   Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is called 

    

   A. protection.

   B. secured loss.

   C. copayment.

   D. indemnity.

27.   Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which are often 

    

   A. used primarily by chiropractors.

   B. used to describe surgical incisions.

   C. referenced horizontally.

   D. paired in opposites.

28.   The code for an ESWL would be found in the 

    

   A. Digestive System of CPT.

   B. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT.

   C. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS.

   D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.

29.   What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy? 

    

   A. 33015

   B. 33050

   C. 33026

   D. 33210

30.   HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed on the 

    

   A. upper left eyelid.

   B. upper right eyelid.

   C. lower left eyelid.

   D. lower right eyelid.

31.   Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system. 

    

   A. UCR

   B. capitation

   C. retrospective payment

   D. prospective payment

32.   What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law? 

    

   A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s discretion.

   B. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding arbitration.

   C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law.

   D. State laws overrule federal law.

33.   The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-paid basis is called 

    

   A. pre-paid care.

   B. managed care.

   C. fee-for-service.

   D. capitation.

34.   The suffix -sis means 

    

   A. process.

   B. drooping.

   C. inflammation.

   D. condition.

35.   A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99215, M19.011, R13.10

   B. 99203, J06.9, R59.0

   C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229

   D. 99202, D63.1, J45.909

36.   A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned? 

    

   A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4

   B. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4

   C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2

   D. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5

37.   A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire pregnancy, from beginning to end, is providing 

    

   A. comprehensive prenatal management.

   B. routine global obstetric care.

   C. puerperal obstetric care.

   D. antenatal global supervision.

38.   A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called 

    

   A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade.

   B. pancreatonia.

   C. pancreatolysis.

   D. pancreatitis.

39.   The covering on the brain and spinal cord in the dorsal cavity is called the 

    

   A. sheath.

   B. peritoneum.

   C. ganglia.

   D. meninges.

40.   The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as 

    

   A. health care administrators.

   B. protected personnel.

   C. provisional health care data collectors.

   D. covered entities.

41.   The retention period is the amount of time that 

    

   A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets.

   B. medications must be kept in the medical office.

   C. records must be kept.

   D. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation.

42.   A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for 

    

   A. invasion of privacy.

   B. undue harm and fraud.

   C. malice.

   D. malfeasance.

43.   Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of 

    

   A. endoplasmic reticulum.

   B. endocrine gland cells.

   C. extracellular matrix.

   D. columnar epithelial cells.

44.   A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded? 

    

   A. 38220

   B. 36575

   C. 35092

   D. 37328

45.   The vitreous humor can be found in the 

    

   A. eye.

   B. nose.

   C. tongue.

   D. ear.

46.   The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called 

    

   A. microbiology.

   B. histopathology.

   C. immunology.

   D. cytopathology.

47.   Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is called 

    

   A. selective catheter placement.

   B. brachiocephalic manipulation.

   C. third order placement.

   D. nonselective catheter placement.

48.   A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. L74.2

   B. L70.0

   C. L72.3

   D. L73.1

49.   Members of the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired members and their families qualify for 

    

   A. OIG Recovery.

   B. Medicaid.

   C. Medicare.

   D. TRICARE.

50.   A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with memory disturbance after being accidentally exposed to lead paint. What ICD-10-CM codes should be assigned? 

    

   A. T42.4X1A, R40.0

   B. T23.009A, R23.8

   C. T56.0X1A, R41.3

   D. T57.0X1A, R10.9

51.   Health care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may 

    

   A. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services.

   B. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General.

   C. be blacklisted according to geographic location.

   D. face financial penalties or, in some cases, imprisonment.

52.   A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis? 

    

   A. The anesthesia administration

   B. The allergy code

   C. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed

   D. The observation code

53.   The root word ENTER/O means 

    

   A. secretion.

   B. intestine.

   C. stomach.

   D. tooth.

54.   When coding burns, coders should 

    

   A. assign separate codes for each burn site.

   B. assign the code for chronic burns.

   C. classify all burns as acute burns.

   D. assign the code for third-degree burns.

55.   Which of the following forms is used to bill outpatient charges? 

    

   A. CMS-1500 or UCF-1500.

   B. AMA-14 or UCF-1250

   C. HCFA-1400 or CMS-1540

   D. HCFA-1350 or CMS-650

56.   A significant, separately identifiable E/M service performed by the same physician in conjunction with another service performed on the same day would be reported using what modifier? 

    

   A. -TC

   B. -47

   C. -90

   D. -25

57.   Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient? 

    

   A. P5

   B. P1

   C. P4

   D. P3

58.   Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called the 

    

   A. minimum necessary standard.

   B. information provision standard.

   C. privacy management statute.

   D. health information guardianship guideline.

59.   Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range? 

    

   A. 57000–57426

   B. 57000–57010

   C. 57150–57180

   D. 56800–56810

60.   A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example of 

    

   A. speculation.

   B. hearsay.

   C. a direct quote.

   D. cross-examination.

61.   A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger while administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must happen? 

    

   A. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be exposed to the same occupational hazard.

   B. The employee should contact the proper authorities.

   C. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse’s medical record for the remainder of her employment plus an additional 30 years.

   D. The guidelines for OSHA should be included in the employment file.

62.   Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is 

    

   A. healthcare vendors.

   B. insurance administrators.

   C. covered entities.

   D. business associates.

63.   A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned? 

    

   A. A4751

   B. A4918 × 2

   C. A4751 × 2

   D. A4918

 

64.   The anatomical location of the calyx is the 

    

   A. arm.

   B. kidney.

   C. spine.

   D. brain.

65.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 62270, G74.3

   B. 62270, G44.1

   C. 62141, G46.8

   D. 62272, G46.9

66.   A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned? 

    

   A. B4278

   B. B4125

   C. B4072

   D. B4034

67.   To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities? 

    

   A. ICD-7 provisional safeguards

   B. Immunization and injection safeguards

   C. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards

   D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards

68.   A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned? 

    

   A. E0976

   B. E0562

   C. E4752

   D. E0607

69.   Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows 

    

   A. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess.

   B. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff.

   C. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions.

   D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.

70.   A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under 

    

   A. Medicare Part B.

   B. Medicare Part A.

   C. Medicare Part D.

   D. Medicare Part C.

71.   Another term for disease evolution is 

    

   A. remission.

   B. pathogenesis.

   C. morphology.

   D. exacerbation.

72.   In relation to HIPAA regulations regarding the manner in which information can be disclosed, which of the following statements is true? 

    

   A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when the patient is unable to testify in a court proceeding.

   B. Protected health information may never be disclosed.

   C. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or administrative proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or administrative tribunal.

   D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a deposition.

73.   The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of 

    

   A. ambulatory payment surgery centers.

   B. prospective payment organizations.

   C. retrospective payment organizations.

   D. health maintenance organizations.

74.   Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer? 

    

   A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

   B. Meniscectomy

   C. Vasoconstriction

   D. Arthroscopy

75.   What diagnosis code would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy? 

    

   A. E11.21

   B. E11.01

   C. E11.22

   D. E11.9

76.   Another name for Medicare Advantage is 

    

   A. Medicare Part A.

   B. Medicare Part C.

   C. Medicare Part B.

   D. Medicare Part D.

77.   The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT? 

    

   A. 33200–33205

   B. 33437–33537

   C. 33202–33273

   D. 33533–33799

78.   A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919

   B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909

   C. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929

   D. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909

79.   What is considered to be protected health information (PHI)? 

    

   A. Any health information that can identify the individual to whom it refers

   B. Records pertaining to ancestry

   C. Statistical data compiled for research purposes only

   D. Census data

 

80.   In what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found? 

    

   A. 88515–88598

   B. 88300–88309

   C. 88400–80499

   D. 88000–80299

 

81.   The federal law that requires a patient’s written consent prior to disclosure of certain medical information by government agencies is called the 

    

   A. Health Care Amendment of 1976.

   B. Privacy Act of 1974.

   C. Health Information Law of 2002.

   D. Medical Consent Act of 1965.

82.   Data stored in a health care facility must 

    

   A. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.

   B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures.

   C. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage.

   D. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely.

83.   Under HIPAA, health care facilities must 

    

   A. maintain a clean, safe working environment.

   B. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.

   C. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a three-month timeframe.

   D. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for mandatory services.

84.   What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis? 

    

   A. 57135

   B. 57859

   C. 57600

   D. 57020

85.   A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is most likely a 

    

   A. tranquilizer.

   B. vasoconstrictor.

   C. cardiotonic.

   D. cardiogenic.

86.   If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can 

    

   A. complete employee paperwork.

   B. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.

   C. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records.

   D. also fulfill requests for prescription data.

87.   According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage? 

    

   A. $34.5741

   B. $32.4726

   C. $28.8457

   D. $36.0666

88.   According to HIPAA, a patient’s information may be released for 

    

   A. determining premiums based on a patient’s past medical history.

   B. paternity testing.

   C. research.

   D. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.

89.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. A07.21

   B. A02.21

   C. A05.26

   D. A23.24

90.   Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis? 

    

   A. Metatarsal

   B. Tibia

   C. Septum

   D. Diaphragm

91.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 76775-TC, N15

   B. 71010-26, B12

   C. 76775-26, N10

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1.   Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule? 

    

   A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files.

   B. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient admission.

   C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to third parties.

   D. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians.

2.   A tethered health record allows patients to 

    

   A. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.

   B. use a secure portal to access their own records.

   C. restructure insurance copayments.

   D. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses.

3.   A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. S72.003A

   B. S72.001A

   C. S49.006A

   D. S72.009A

4.   Which one of the following structures is part of the male secondary genitalia? 

    

   A. Gonads

   B. Urethra

   C. Testes

   D. Vulva

5.   What is the full code description for 25515? 

    

   A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of triangular fibrocartilage complex

   B. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed

   C. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation

   D. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation

6.   Another name for XXY syndrome is 

    

   A. Turner’s syndrome.

   B. Huntington’s chorea.

   C. Cooley’s anemia.

   D. Klinefelter syndrome.

7.   The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called the 

    

   A. cochlea.

   B. stapes.

   C. malleus.

   D. incus.

 

8.   Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system. 

    

   A. circulatory

   B. digestive

   C. endocrine

   D. sensory

9.   Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? 

    

   A. It’s located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart.

   B. It’s found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.

   C. It’s susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie’s disease.

   D. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body.

10.   A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How is this coded? 

    

   A. 55520

   B. 52630

   C. 51702

   D. 52601

11.   What is the CPT code for simple drainage of a finger abscess? 

    

   A. 26010

   B. 26020

   C. 26034

   D. 26011

12.   Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes 

    

   A. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.

   B. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.

   C. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.

   D. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.

13.   What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial nephritis? 

    

   A. Z02.6

   B. B96.2

   C. L50.0

   D. N10

14.   An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient’s artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an 

    

   A. aneurysm.

   B. cyst.

   C. mesenteric venous thrombosis.

   D. benign tumor.

15.   What is Medicare Part D? 

    

   A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries

   B. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents

   C. Add-on coverage for dental procedures

   D. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies approved by Medicare

16.   The suffix –stasis means 

    

   A. flow.

   B. stopping and controlling.

   C. breakdown.

   D. kinetic.

17.   The outcome of delivery code should be 

    

   A. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.

   B. assigned to the newborn record only.

   C. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.

   D. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs.

18.   A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99292, 99292, 99293

   B. 99291, 99291

   C. 99291, 99292

   D. 99292, 99293

19.   The root word OBSTETR/O means 

    

   A. cesarean.

   B. pregnancy.

   C. birth.

   D. midwife.

20.   Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in 

    

   A. Excel.

   B. Lotus 1-2-3.

   C. PowerPoint.

   D. Word.

21.   A patient undergoes an appendectomy and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier should be assigned to the CPT code? 

    

   A. -51

   B. -AA

   C. -76

   D. -78

22.   The concept of meaningful use pertains to 

    

   A. categorization of patient information.

   B. medical office protocol and document organization.

   C. resource management in the inpatient setting.

   D. electronic health record implementation.

23.   The study of disease is called 

    

   A. pathology.

   B. urology.

   C. physiology.

   D. neurology.

24.   Modifier -23 indicates that 

    

   A. a procedure was performed bilaterally.

   B. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia.

   C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure.

   D. two surgeons performed a procedure.

25.   Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it may 

    

   A. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being diagnosed with the condition.

   B. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical records.

   C. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.

   D. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory surgery centers.

26.   Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is called 

    

   A. protection.

   B. secured loss.

   C. copayment.

   D. indemnity.

27.   Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which are often 

    

   A. used primarily by chiropractors.

   B. used to describe surgical incisions.

   C. referenced horizontally.

   D. paired in opposites.

28.   The code for an ESWL would be found in the 

    

   A. Digestive System of CPT.

   B. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT.

   C. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS.

   D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.

29.   What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy? 

    

   A. 33015

   B. 33050

   C. 33026

   D. 33210

30.   HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed on the 

    

   A. upper left eyelid.

   B. upper right eyelid.

   C. lower left eyelid.

   D. lower right eyelid.

31.   Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system. 

    

   A. UCR

   B. capitation

   C. retrospective payment

   D. prospective payment

32.   What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law? 

    

   A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s discretion.

   B. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding arbitration.

   C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law.

   D. State laws overrule federal law.

33.   The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-paid basis is called 

    

   A. pre-paid care.

   B. managed care.

   C. fee-for-service.

   D. capitation.

34.   The suffix -sis means 

    

   A. process.

   B. drooping.

   C. inflammation.

   D. condition.

35.   A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99215, M19.011, R13.10

   B. 99203, J06.9, R59.0

   C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229

   D. 99202, D63.1, J45.909

36.   A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned? 

    

   A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4

   B. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4

   C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2

   D. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5

37.   A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire pregnancy, from beginning to end, is providing 

    

   A. comprehensive prenatal management.

   B. routine global obstetric care.

   C. puerperal obstetric care.

   D. antenatal global supervision.

38.   A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called 

    

   A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade.

   B. pancreatonia.

   C. pancreatolysis.

   D. pancreatitis.

39.   The covering on the brain and spinal cord in the dorsal cavity is called the 

    

   A. sheath.

   B. peritoneum.

   C. ganglia.

   D. meninges.

40.   The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as 

    

   A. health care administrators.

   B. protected personnel.

   C. provisional health care data collectors.

   D. covered entities.

41.   The retention period is the amount of time that 

    

   A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets.

   B. medications must be kept in the medical office.

   C. records must be kept.

   D. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation.

42.   A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for 

    

   A. invasion of privacy.

   B. undue harm and fraud.

   C. malice.

   D. malfeasance.

43.   Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of 

    

   A. endoplasmic reticulum.

   B. endocrine gland cells.

   C. extracellular matrix.

   D. columnar epithelial cells.

44.   A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded? 

    

   A. 38220

   B. 36575

   C. 35092

   D. 37328

45.   The vitreous humor can be found in the 

    

   A. eye.

   B. nose.

   C. tongue.

   D. ear.

46.   The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called 

    

   A. microbiology.

   B. histopathology.

   C. immunology.

   D. cytopathology.

47.   Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is called 

    

   A. selective catheter placement.

   B. brachiocephalic manipulation.

   C. third order placement.

   D. nonselective catheter placement.

48.   A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. L74.2

   B. L70.0

   C. L72.3

   D. L73.1

49.   Members of the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired members and their families qualify for 

    

   A. OIG Recovery.

   B. Medicaid.

   C. Medicare.

   D. TRICARE.

50.   A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with memory disturbance after being accidentally exposed to lead paint. What ICD-10-CM codes should be assigned? 

    

   A. T42.4X1A, R40.0

   B. T23.009A, R23.8

   C. T56.0X1A, R41.3

   D. T57.0X1A, R10.9

51.   Health care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may 

    

   A. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services.

   B. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General.

   C. be blacklisted according to geographic location.

   D. face financial penalties or, in some cases, imprisonment.

52.   A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis? 

    

   A. The anesthesia administration

   B. The allergy code

   C. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed

   D. The observation code

53.   The root word ENTER/O means 

    

   A. secretion.

   B. intestine.

   C. stomach.

   D. tooth.

54.   When coding burns, coders should 

    

   A. assign separate codes for each burn site.

   B. assign the code for chronic burns.

   C. classify all burns as acute burns.

   D. assign the code for third-degree burns.

55.   Which of the following forms is used to bill outpatient charges? 

    

   A. CMS-1500 or UCF-1500.

   B. AMA-14 or UCF-1250

   C. HCFA-1400 or CMS-1540

   D. HCFA-1350 or CMS-650

56.   A significant, separately identifiable E/M service performed by the same physician in conjunction with another service performed on the same day would be reported using what modifier? 

    

   A. -TC

   B. -47

   C. -90

   D. -25

57.   Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient? 

    

   A. P5

   B. P1

   C. P4

   D. P3

58.   Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called the 

    

   A. minimum necessary standard.

   B. information provision standard.

   C. privacy management statute.

   D. health information guardianship guideline.

59.   Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range? 

    

   A. 57000–57426

   B. 57000–57010

   C. 57150–57180

   D. 56800–56810

60.   A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example of 

    

   A. speculation.

   B. hearsay.

   C. a direct quote.

   D. cross-examination.

61.   A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger while administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must happen? 

    

   A. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be exposed to the same occupational hazard.

   B. The employee should contact the proper authorities.

   C. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse’s medical record for the remainder of her employment plus an additional 30 years.

   D. The guidelines for OSHA should be included in the employment file.

62.   Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is 

    

   A. healthcare vendors.

   B. insurance administrators.

   C. covered entities.

   D. business associates.

63.   A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned? 

    

   A. A4751

   B. A4918 × 2

   C. A4751 × 2

   D. A4918

 

64.   The anatomical location of the calyx is the 

    

   A. arm.

   B. kidney.

   C. spine.

   D. brain.

65.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 62270, G74.3

   B. 62270, G44.1

   C. 62141, G46.8

   D. 62272, G46.9

66.   A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned? 

    

   A. B4278

   B. B4125

   C. B4072

   D. B4034

67.   To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities? 

    

   A. ICD-7 provisional safeguards

   B. Immunization and injection safeguards

   C. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards

   D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards

68.   A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned? 

    

   A. E0976

   B. E0562

   C. E4752

   D. E0607

69.   Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows 

    

   A. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess.

   B. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff.

   C. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions.

   D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.

70.   A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under 

    

   A. Medicare Part B.

   B. Medicare Part A.

   C. Medicare Part D.

   D. Medicare Part C.

71.   Another term for disease evolution is 

    

   A. remission.

   B. pathogenesis.

   C. morphology.

   D. exacerbation.

72.   In relation to HIPAA regulations regarding the manner in which information can be disclosed, which of the following statements is true? 

    

   A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when the patient is unable to testify in a court proceeding.

   B. Protected health information may never be disclosed.

   C. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or administrative proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or administrative tribunal.

   D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a deposition.

73.   The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of 

    

   A. ambulatory payment surgery centers.

   B. prospective payment organizations.

   C. retrospective payment organizations.

   D. health maintenance organizations.

74.   Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer? 

    

   A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

   B. Meniscectomy

   C. Vasoconstriction

   D. Arthroscopy

75.   What diagnosis code would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy? 

    

   A. E11.21

   B. E11.01

   C. E11.22

   D. E11.9

76.   Another name for Medicare Advantage is 

    

   A. Medicare Part A.

   B. Medicare Part C.

   C. Medicare Part B.

   D. Medicare Part D.

77.   The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT? 

    

   A. 33200–33205

   B. 33437–33537

   C. 33202–33273

   D. 33533–33799

78.   A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919

   B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909

   C. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929

   D. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909

79.   What is considered to be protected health information (PHI)? 

    

   A. Any health information that can identify the individual to whom it refers

   B. Records pertaining to ancestry

   C. Statistical data compiled for research purposes only

   D. Census data

 

80.   In what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found? 

    

   A. 88515–88598

   B. 88300–88309

   C. 88400–80499

   D. 88000–80299

 

81.   The federal law that requires a patient’s written consent prior to disclosure of certain medical information by government agencies is called the 

    

   A. Health Care Amendment of 1976.

   B. Privacy Act of 1974.

   C. Health Information Law of 2002.

   D. Medical Consent Act of 1965.

82.   Data stored in a health care facility must 

    

   A. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.

   B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures.

   C. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage.

   D. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely.

83.   Under HIPAA, health care facilities must 

    

   A. maintain a clean, safe working environment.

   B. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.

   C. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a three-month timeframe.

   D. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for mandatory services.

84.   What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis? 

    

   A. 57135

   B. 57859

   C. 57600

   D. 57020

85.   A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is most likely a 

    

   A. tranquilizer.

   B. vasoconstrictor.

   C. cardiotonic.

   D. cardiogenic.

86.   If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can 

    

   A. complete employee paperwork.

   B. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.

   C. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records.

   D. also fulfill requests for prescription data.

87.   According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage? 

    

   A. $34.5741

   B. $32.4726

   C. $28.8457

   D. $36.0666

88.   According to HIPAA, a patient’s information may be released for 

    

   A. determining premiums based on a patient’s past medical history.

   B. paternity testing.

   C. research.

   D. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.

89.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. A07.21

   B. A02.21

   C. A05.26

   D. A23.24

90.   Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis? 

    

   A. Metatarsal

   B. Tibia

   C. Septum

   D. Diaphragm

91.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 76775-TC, N15

   B. 71010-26, B12

   C. 76775-26, N10

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Identify the grade or level of recommendation for the three recomendations identified and describe what the assigned grade or level means.

Discussion Question

Clinical practice guidelines use available evidence to develop recommendations that guide practice to improve patient care.

Select a clinical practice guideline, based on your area of interest, from one of the web sites below or another site. Describe the following information from the guideline you selected.

Identify the name of the clinical guideline and date developed
Identify the population
Identify 3 recommendations found in the guideline
Identify the grade or level of recommendation for the three recomendations identified and describe what the assigned grade or level means.
How can you use the information from the guideline in your practice?
Suggested Clinical Practice Guideline sites:

https://www.guidelinecentral.com/summaries/specialties/nursing/

https://www.ena.org/practice-resources/resource-library/clinical-practice-guidelines

https://www.uspreventiveservicestaskforce.org/BrowseRec/Index

https://guidelines.ecri.org/

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Describe the characteristics of the people you see in Sentinel Town®.

Basic Windshield Survey – Rural
Enter Sentinel Town® via the link to begin your virtual experience by taking a tour by car of Sentinel Town®. Since this is your first tour, select the slowest speed and stay in the car the entire time at least once before getting out of the car.

As you take the tour, write down your observations, specifically those that align with the following demographics and/or subsystems listed in the left-hand column of the rubric.

Describe the characteristics of the people you see in Sentinel Town®.
What are the race/ethnicity distribution, age ranges, and gender mix?
Are there signs of poverty or wealth? What are they?
Who do you see on the streets?
Parent with child, teens, couples, disabled persons?
Are there homeless persons, beggars, etc.?
Is there anyone in the city you would not expect to see?
Are there dogs on or off leash? Are there other animals?
Are there churches and other formal religious buildings?
What are their denominations?
Compile your observations addressing each item listed in the first column of the rubric. You are encouraged to add other relevant observations that may not be listed in the first column.

Select a target population of interest and discuss relevant demographic data and health status indicators for this population group. Identify major health concerns for this target population. Include a discussion of major health concerns in relation to a global health issue.

Reading and Resources

Harkness & DeMarco (2016) Read Chapters 1 & 2
Read all Sentinel City information available at the top of the course homepage.
Visit QSEN: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses
Read the Report: The Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health
Read the Report: The Future of Public Health
Review Final Project Requirements
Watch the Henry Street Settlement: 120 Years in 4 Minutes Video
View this 9 minute video entitled Community Assessment Windshield Survey, to help you see what types of things to look for when you conduct a windshield survey in the Sentinel City simulation
Additional Instructions:

All submissions should have a title page and reference page.
Utilize a minimum of two scholarly resources.
Adhere to grammar, spelling and punctuation criteria.
Adhere to APA compliance guidelines.
Adhere to the chosen Submission Option for Delivery of Activity guidelines.
Submission Option

Instruction

Paper

4 to 6-page paper. Include title and reference pages.

Note: Title and reference pages/slides do not count towards the count requirements.

Attachments areaPreview YouTube video Henry Street Settlement: 120 Years in 4 MinutesPreview YouTube video Community Assessment Windshield SurveyCommunity Assessment Windshield SurveyReplyReply allForward

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Describe at least one state regulation related to general nurse scope of practice.

Develop a 9- to 10-slide PowerPoint Presentation that addresses the following:

Describe the differences between a board of nursing and a professional nurse association.
Describe the geographic distribution, academic credentials, practice positions, and licensure status of members of the board for your specific region/area.
Who is on the board?
How does one become a member of the board?
Describe at least one federal regulation for healthcare.
How does this regulation influence delivery, cost, and access to healthcare (e.g., CMS, OSHA, and EPA)?
Has there been any change to the regulation within the past 5 years? Explain.
Describe at least one state regulation related to general nurse scope of practice.
How does this regulation influence the nurse’s role?
How does this regulation influence delivery, cost, and access to healthcare?
Describe at least one state regulation related to Advanced Practice Registered Nurses (APRNs).
How does this regulation influence the nurse’s role?
How does this regulation influence delivery, cost, and access to healthcare?

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What questions yielded the most information? Why do you think these were effective?

Exercises:

Complete the ShadowHealth© Conversation Concept Lab and Digital Clinical Experience Orientation
Complete the ShadowHealth© Health History assignment
After you have achieved at least 80% on the assignment(s) download, save and upload your LabPass document to the dropbox.

Professional Development

Write a 500-word APA reflection essay of your experience with the Shadow Health virtual assignment(s). At least two scholarly sources in addition to your textbook should be utilized. Answers to the following questions may be included in your reflective essay:
What went well in your assessment?
What did not go so well? What will you change for your next assessment?
What findings did you uncover?
What questions yielded the most information? Why do you think these were effective?
What diagnostic tests would you order based on your findings?
What differential diagnoses are you currently considering?
What patient teaching were you able to complete? What additional patient teaching is needed?
Would you prescribe any medications at this point? Why or why not? If so, what?
How did your assessment demonstrate sound critical thinking and clinical decision making?

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Identify a patient care situation in which you describe how nursing care or approaches to decision-making may differ based upon the educational preparation of the nurse (BSN vs ADN).

Type of paperEssay (Any Type)

SubjectNursing

Number of pages3

Format of citationAPA

Number of cited resources3

Type of serviceWriting

1. Discuss the difference in competencies between nurses prepared at the ADN level vs BSN level. 2. Identify a patient care situation in which you describe how nursing care or approaches to decision-making may differ based upon the educational preparation of the nurse (BSN vs ADN).

Additional Service

i

Progressive delivery

With progressive delivery, you have an additional deadline by which you have to provide a first half of the paper for the customer. The customer may evaluate this work and add his or her commentary.

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Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected.

Your quest to purchase a new car begins with an identification of the factors important to you. As you conduct a search of cars that rate high on those factors, you collect evidence and try to understand the extent of that evidence. A report that suggests a certain make and model of automobile has high mileage is encouraging. But who produced that report? How valid is it? How was the data collected, and what was the sample size?

In this Assignment, you will delve deeper into clinical inquiry by closely examining your PICO(T) question. You also begin to analyze the evidence you have collected.

To Prepare:

Review the Resources and identify a clinical issue of interest that can form the basis of a clinical inquiry.
Develop a PICO(T) question to address the clinical issue of interest for the Assignment.
Use the key words from the PICO(T) question you developed and search at least four different databases in the Walden Library. Identify at least four relevant systematic reviews or other filtered high-level evidence, which includes meta-analyses, critically-appraised topics (evidence syntheses), critically-appraised individual articles (article synopses). The evidence will not necessarily address all the elements of your PICO(T) question, so select the most important concepts to search and find the best evidence available.
Reflect on the process of creating a PICO(T) question and searching for peer-reviewed research.
The Assignment (Evidence-Based Project)

Part 3: Advanced Levels of Clinical Inquiry and Systematic Reviews

Create a 6- to 7-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following:

Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Describe how you developed a PICO(T) question focused on your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Provide APA citations of the four relevant peer-reviewed articles at the systematic-reviews level related to your research question. If there are no systematic review level articles or meta-analysis on your topic, then use the highest level of evidence peer reviewed article.
Describe the levels of evidence in each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, including an explanation of the strengths of using systematic reviews for clinical research. Be specific and provide examples.
****PART 2 AND 3 ARE ATTACHED****

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Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

BACKGROUND INFORMATION

The client is a 26-year-old woman of Korean descent who presents to her first appointment following a 21-day hospitalization for onset of acute mania. She was diagnosed with bipolar I disorder.

Upon arrival in your office, she is quite “busy,” playing with things on your desk and shifting from side to side in her chair. She informs you that “they said I was bipolar, I don’t believe that, do you? I just like to talk, and dance, and sing. Did I tell you that I liked to cook?”

She weights 110 lbs. and is 5’ 5”

SUBJECTIVE

Patient reports “fantastic” mood. Reports that she sleeps about 5 hours/night to which she adds “I hate sleep, it’s no fun.”

You reviewed her hospital records and find that she has been medically worked up by a physician who reported her to be in overall good health. Lab studies were all within normal limits. You find that the patient had genetic testing in the hospital (specifically GeneSight testing) as none of the medications that they were treating her with seemed to work.

Genetic testing reveals that she is positive for CYP2D6*10 allele.

Patient confesses that she stopped taking her lithium (which was prescribed in the hospital) since she was discharged two weeks ago.

MENTAL STATUS EXAM

The patient is alert, oriented to person, place, time, and event. She is dressed quite oddly- wearing what appears to be an evening gown to her appointment. Speech is rapid, pressured, tangential. Self-reported mood is euthymic. Affect broad. Patient denies visual or auditory hallucinations, no overt delusional or paranoid thought processes readily apparent. Judgment is grossly intact, but insight is clearly impaired. She is currently denying suicidal or homicidal ideation.

The Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS) score is 22

RESOURCES

§ Chen, R., Wang, H., Shi, J., Shen, K., & Hu, P. (2015). Cytochrome P450 2D6 genotype affects the pharmacokinetics of controlled-release paroxetine in healthy Chinese subjects: comparison of traditional phenotype and activity score systems. European Journal of Clinical Pharmacology, 71(7), 835-841. doi:10.1007/s00228-015-1855-6

The Assignment

Examine Case Study: An Asian American Woman With Bipolar Disorder. You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the medication to prescribe to this client. Be sure to consider factors that might impact the client’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes.

At each decision point stop to complete the following:

Decision #1
Which decision did you select?
Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
Decision #2What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
Why were they different?Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the decision.

Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?
Decision #3
Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?
Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients.

In your introduction please be sure and discuss background information on the patient.

In your decision trees you need to discuss all therapies presented as well as why you didn’t select them. You also should be more specific with the evidence you provide. 
Please also be sure to provide an ethical consideration/conclusion at the end of your essay.

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